| Author |
Topic  |
|
event_horizon_bh
Radio Wave
India
2 Posts |
Posted - 02/25/2003 : 13:46:31
S.Hawking mentioned in his book 'the brief history of time' that particles can have spins other than .5f namely 0,1,2. if anyone has a better understanding of this topic do reply back asap.we've learnt that electrons have 1/2 spin. why 1/2?? do read this book if you haven't already done so. aartirag
Alert Mentor now
|
alis
Radio Wave
USA
88 Posts |
Posted - 02/25/2003 : 17:52:26
Electrons have spin-1/2 because they're electrons. :) Spin 1/2 is part of the definition of being an electron; particles with different spins have different names.What spin really represents is how a particle looks under rotations (I think Hawking mentions this.) Spin-0 is like a point; spin-1 is like an arrow, etc. Spin-1/2 particles are weird because they don't look the same after you go one revolution around them (360 deg) -- you need to go two. This is really hard to explain, but actually quite natural. Most of the confusion arises from the fact that our intuitions about plain 3D space aren't so swell. As to why we see so many spin-1/2 particles: For various reasons spin-0, 1/2, and 1 particles are much more likely to be around, or even exist, at this point in the universe than particles with higher spins. I don't know why this is, though I suspect plenty of physicists might. --- The good Christian should beware of mathematicians and all those who make empty prophecies. The danger already exists that mathematicians have made a covenant with the devil to darken the spirit and confine man in the bonds of Hell. -St Augustine
Alert Mentor now

|
mouseman
Radio Wave
USA
3 Posts |
Posted - 02/26/2003 : 22:50:23
I can grasp the idea of particles having different "spins", but what i would like to know is where i can find out about how it was determined that these particles' characteristics was dependent on their shape. How do they know that electrons have a spin 1/2?
Alert Mentor now
Edited by - mouseman on 02/26/2003 22:52:28
|
silverpig
Radio Wave
Canada
13 Posts |
Posted - 02/28/2003 : 07:16:52
My guess on how they know:In any system angular momentum (spin) must be conserved (assuming no loss). In particle accelerators you can put in a proton with a certain spin and smash it. Out will pop out a number of other particles. The spins of the resultant mess of particles must add up to the spin of the incident particles.
Alert Mentor now

|
nowonmai
Radio Wave
Ireland
26 Posts |
Posted - 03/05/2003 : 12:12:44
I vaguely remember that due to pauli's exclusion principle that only one particle of a given quantum state can exist in a given position, but in the case of a helium atom, there are two electrons in the same energy state, so if this is the case, there must be something else that seperates their quantum states... spin
Alert Mentor now

|
ObsessiveMathsFreak
Infrared Wave
Burkina Faso (Upper Volta)
282 Posts |
Posted - 03/05/2003 : 14:59:26
I think the analogy we came up with before was a coke bottle that was spinning around on two axes.One throught the middle and one from top to bottom. The different rates of spin on both axes lead to spin 1/2. The sother answer we came up with was that spin was an incredibly misleading term and shouldn't be used. "May the maths be with you"
Alert Mentor now

|
nbo10
Radio Wave
USA
16 Posts |
Posted - 03/05/2003 : 22:42:44
Spin is an intrinsic property of particles, that doesn't depend on the shape, because there really isn't a shape for the particle. An easy experiment to detect that there are two spin, +1/2 and -1/2 for an electron, is the stern-gerloch experiment. Take a horseshoe magent. Between the two poles pass a beam of electrons, or silver atoms are used alot. the beam of electrons pass through the area of the magnet poles, the electrons are deflected beacuse the spin interacts with the magnetic field. The lorentz force is much larger than the magnetic-spin force deflecting the electron, but I do believe it's been done. JMD
Alert Mentor now

|
Jim Osborn
Radio Wave
USA
95 Posts |
Posted - 03/06/2003 : 03:00:56
quote: Originally posted by nbo10: Spin is an intrinsic property of particles, JMD
Hi nbo, Intrinsic says it all - which means that the electron is born with spin - and never loses it. Here is why! when a light ray impingeson matter it has been shown experimentally that among other things that occur, there are Compton electrons and photo-electric electrons (used to calculate Planck's constant) and discontinue kicking out singular electrons at photo energies exceeding 1.02 MeV. at which energy Pair Production thresholds whereby not a single electron occurs but an electron and a positron happen with the pair departing in opposite directions. When one considers that the incident ray has not only a pos and neg charge but also has inertial spin of "one". When the pair is born, the unit spin of the ray is halved resulting in two inertial spins of +1/2. The spinning electron has magnetic spin of +1/2 but the parallel spinning of the positron (being an anti- particle) is reversed magnetically thus haveing magnetic spin = -1/2. In the case of like spining charges found in quantum orbital surounding nuclei where the Pauli principle applies the similarity of charges that shares the orbital must differ in some other way than charge. When the intrinsic magnetic spins are parallel such pairings are forbidden and therefore coupling occurs only when the magnetic spins are opposed. Cheers, Jim
Alert Mentor now

|
alexander
Gamma Wave
  
Russia
3982 Posts |
Posted - 03/07/2003 : 04:38:38
Interesting that spin being the product of position and momentum can't be accurately defined in principle (thanks to Heizenberg uncertanty principle). Kinda is not mathematically allowed to exist. Life is chemistry,chemistry is quantum mechanics,quantum mechanics is math.To learn how natural laws,natural forces and natural objects originate from math,click: http://www.emmynoether.com/
Alert Mentor now

Edited by - alexander on 03/07/2003 04:41:34
|